Practicing the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions Set 4 allows you to get rid of exam fear and be confident to appear for the exam.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 4 with Solutions
Time: 3 Hours.
Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
- All questions are compulsory.
- Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
- Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words each.
- Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
- Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
- Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170 words.
Section – A (12 Marks)
Question 1.
The ______ carries out coordination of security and foreign policy in the ASEAN region. [1]
(a) ASEAN
(b) ASEAN Regional Forum
(c) ASEAN Regional Foundation
(d) Asian Regional Forum
Answer:
(b) ASEAN Regional Forum
Question 2.
Who among the following acted as the chairperson of the Planning Commission? [1]
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(b) Prime Minister
Question 3.
Which of the following statements about the Indian National Congress (post independence) are true? [1]
(i) It was an all-inclusive party.
(ii) It had the ‘first of the block’ advantage.
(iii) It was a well organised party.
(iv) It had a pan India presence.
Codes
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Question 4.
Choose the odd one out from the given options. [1]
(a) NABARD: Agriculture
(b) IRDAI: Insurance
(c) SEBI: Mutual Funds
(d) NBFCs: Financial Regulator
Answer:
(d) NBFCs: Financial Regulator
Directions for Q.Nos. 5 and 6
In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read these statements and choose one correct answer from the given options.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Question 5.
Assertion (A): Congress lost power in the elections of 1989. [1]
Reason (R): Congress won an overwhelming majority in the elections of 1984.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
Question 6.
Assertion (A): Following the Arab-Israel War of 1973, the entire world was affected by the Oil Shock. [1]
Reason (R): There was a massive hike in the oil prices by the Arab Nations.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Question 7.
Which two languages were spoken in Bombay state before it was divided in 1950? [1]
(a) Gujarati and Marathi
(b) Gujarati and Hindi
(c) Marathi and Hindi
(d) Hindi and Konkani
Answer:
(a) Gujarati and Marathi
Question 8.
Which of the following statements about NAM are true? [1]
(i) The Bandung Conference in 1955 later led to the establishment of the NAM.
(ii) The First Summit of the NAM was held in Belgrade in October 1961.
(iii) Jawaharlal Nehru was a co-founder of the NAM.
(iv) China was the founding member of NAM.
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iii)
Question 9.
In Nepal, the largely non-violent mass movement for democracy was led by ______. [1]
(a) Maoist parties
(b) Socialist parties
(c) Seven Party Alliance
(d) Students
Answer:
(c) Seven Party Alliance
Question 10.
Arrange the following in chronological order: [1]
(i) Liberation of Bangladesh
(ii) Tashkent Agreement
(iii) Indus Water Treaty
(iv) Assassination of Sheikh Mujib
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(c) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(d) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
Answer:
(b) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
Question 11.
Which party won the first National elections in India? [1]
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Communist Party of India
(c) It was coalition government
(d) Peoples Democratic Front
Answer:
(a) Indian National Congress
Question 12.
According to Lohia, what are the three symbols that a Party of Socialism should have? [1]
(a) Spade, Vote, Prison
(b) Spade, Vote, Thumb
(c) Tractor, Vote, Prison
(d) Tractor, Ballot, Prison
Answer:
(a) Spade, Vote, Prison
Section – B (12 Marks)
Question 13.
What is the relationship between traditional security and cooperation? [2]
Answer:
Traditional security is closely related with cooperation as it recognises the need for cooperation to limit violence. This limit directly relates to both means and ends of the war. It has been universally accepted that countries should get into a war for genuine reasons, say self-defence or to protect other people from genocide.
Question 14.
According to the guidelines of the Second Five-Year Plan, how did the government try to protect the domestic industries? [2]
Answer:
According to the 2nd Five Year Plan (FYP), the government tried to protect the domestic industries through the policy of ‘Import Substitution’ where they attempted to replace the imports with domestic products. They controlled the imports by the way of tariffs and quotas on imports.
Question 15.
Name the two departments of defence that were established aftermath of the wars of 1962 and 1965. [2]
Answer:
The following departments of defence were established aftermath of the wars of 1962 and 1965:
1. The Department of Defence Production in November 1962.
2. The Department of Defence Supplies in November 1965.
Question 16.
How was the U.S. benefited by the Soviet disintegration? [2]
Answer:
Cold War ended and the US became the sole superpower. The capitalist economy became the dominant economic system internationally. It signifies collapse of the ideological conflict between the Socialists and the Capitalists.
Question 17.
Name some groups which are a part of the WSF (World Social Forum)? [2]
Answer:
World Social Forum is a global organisation that fights against negative impacts of globalisation. The organisation consists of human rights activists, environmentalists, labour unions, youth as well as women activists.
Question 18.
How was the U.S. benefited by the Soviet disintegration? [2]
Answer:
Cold War ended and the US became the sole superpower. The capitalist economy became the dominant economic system internationally. It signifies collapse of the ideological conflict between the Socialists and the Capitalists.
Section – C (20 Marks)
Question 19.
What were some of the resistance that Nehru faced in India for his Non-Alignment policies? [4]
Answer:
There was opposition from several groups for the Non-Alignment policy pursued by Nehru:
1. There were several groups in India that felt that Nehru should opt for the capitalist bloc led by the USA. India and US both believed in the democratic ideals and had the opinion that they can work together for progress. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar also supported this viewpoint.
2. There were parties like Bharatiya Jan Sangh and Swatantra Party who were against the ideology of communism.
Question 20.
Mention the features of Kyoto Protocol. [4]
Answer:
The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement setting targets for industrialised countries to cut their greenhouse gas emissions. The protocol was agreed to in 1997 in Kyoto in Japan, based on principles set out in UNFCCC.
Features of the Kyoto Protocol:
1. The Kyoto Protocol was an international agreement for setting targets for industrial countries to cut their greenhouse gas emissions in 2002.
2. It was also acknowledged that per capita emissions in developing countries were still low in comparison to developed countries.
3. The protocol was based on principles set out in UNFCCC. (United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change).
Question 21.
The Shah Commission was appointed in 1977 by the Janata Party Government. Why was it appointed and what were its findings? [4]
Answer:
The Shah Commission was appointed to make an investigation of the events that took place during the period of emergency. It was also given the task to evaluate the decisions made by Indira Gandhi during the emergency and their legal validity.
Some of the findings of the report are:
1. It was found that many violations of laws were occurred during emergency.
2. Lakhs of people were detained under the preventive detention law.
3. The censorship on the press was imposed that do not have a proper legal provision.
Question 22.
Give examples to show that most of the former Soviet Republics are prone to conflicts and tensions. [4]
Answer:
Most of the former Soviet Republics are prone to conflicts and insurgencies, which have made the life difficult for citizens.
1. In Russia, two republics, Chechnya and Dagestan had violent secessionist movements.
2. The Russian government used force along with military bombings that have lead to many human rights violations.
3. In Central Asia, Tajikistan witnessed a civil war for 10 years till 2001.
4. Separatist movements in Azerbaijan, some local Armenians wanted to join Armenia.
5. Demand of independence from two provinces of Georgia.
6. Movements against existing regimes in Ukraine, Kyrgyzstan and Georgia.
Question 23.
What is BJP system? When did it started? [4]
Answer:
The 2019 Lok Sabha elections, the 17th since independence, once again brought back BJP-led NDA [NDA IV] to the centre of power by winning more than 350 seats out of 543. The BJP on its own won 303 seats in the Lok Sabha, the biggest number any single party has won in the lower house since 1984 when Congress swept the elections in the aftermath of Mrs Indira Gandhi’s assassination.
Based on the tumultuous success of the BJP in 2019, Social Scientists have started equating the contemporary party system with the ‘BJP System’ where an era of one-party dominance, like the ‘Congress System’ has once again started appearing on the democratic politics of India.
Section – D (12 Marks)
Question 24.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]
A new chapter of peace and cooperation might evolve in South Asia if all the countries in the region allow free trade across the borders. This is the spirit behind the idea of the SAFTA. The Agreement was signed in 2004 and came into effect on 1 January 2006. The SAFTA aims at lowering trade tariffs. But some of our neighbours fear that the SAFTA is a way for India to ‘invade’ their markets and to influence their societies and politics through commercial ventures and a commercial presence in their countries. India thinks that there are real economic benefits for all SAARC nations from the SAFTA and that a region that trades more freely will be able to cooperate better on political issues. Some critics think that the SAFTA is not worth for India as it already has bilateral agreements with Bhutan, Nepal and Sri Lanka.
(i) What is the full form of SAFTA?
(a) South Africa Free Trade Agreement
(b) South Asian Free Trade Agreement
(c) South America Free Trade Agreement
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) South Asian Free Trade Agreement
(ii) Why SAFTA was signed?
(a) To allow free trade among the South Asian nations
(b) To allow free trade among the South American nations
(c) To increase the political interference of the nations in South Asia
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) To allow free trade among the South Asian nations
(iii) Why do some of the neighbours of India fear SAFTA?
(a) They fear that the economic influence of India will increase
(b) India will impact their politics
(c) India will impact their commercial ventures
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above
(iv) India does not have a trade agreement with which of the following nations?
(a) Bhutan
(b) Nepal
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan
Question 25.
In the given outline political map of the world, four countries have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these countries on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with the respective serial numbers of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the format that follows: [4]
(i) A country that did a nuclear test in the year 1998.
(ii) A communist nation during the Cold War.
(iii) A capitalist country that dropped an atomic bomb on Japan.
(iv) A communist nation initially under Mao Zedong
| Sr. Number for the information used | Alphabet Concerned | Name of the states |
| (i) | ||
| (ii) | ||
| (iii) | ||
| (iv) |
Answer:
| Sr. Number for the information used | Alphabet Concerned | Name of the states |
| (i) | C | India |
| (ii) | D | USSR |
| (iii) | A | USA |
| (iv) | B | China |
Question 26.
Study the given Cartoon and answer the questions that follow: [4]
(i) Name the person who is sitting in the centre of the cartoon.
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
(ii) Which one of the following challenges was faced by the above-mentioned person?
(a) Reorganisation of states on linguistic lines
(b) Integration of Princely States
(c) Partition of India
(d) Rehabilitation of refugees
Answer:
(a) Reorganisation of states on linguistic lines
(iii) During the ______ the state boundaries were drawn on administrative convenience.
(a) Mughal rule
(b) British rule
(c) Maratha rule
(d) Portuguese rule
Answer:
(b) British rule
(iv) Name the movement which demanded linguistic reorganisation of the Madras province.
(a) Tamil movement
(b) Satyagraha movement
(c) State Reorganisation movement
(d) Vishalandhra movement
Answer:
(d) Vishalandhra movement
Section – E (24 Marks)
Question 27.
Trace the evolution of the United Nations since its establishment in 1945. How does it function with the help of its various structures and agencies?
OR
How far did the UN perform its role successfully in maintaining peace in the world? Explain. [6]
Answer:
- The organisation was set up through the signing of the United Nations Charter by 51 states. It tried to achieve what the League could not between the two world wars.
- The UN’s objective is to prevent international conflict and to facilitate cooperation among states. It was founded with the hope that it would act to stop the conflicts between states escalating into war and, if war broke out, to limit the extent of hostilities.
- Furthermore, since conflicts often arose from the lack of social and economic development, the UN was intended to bring countries together to improve the prospects of social and economic development all over the world.
- By 2011, the UN had 193 member states. This included almost all independent states.
- In the UN General Assembly, all members have one vote each.
- In the UN Security Council, there are five permanent members. These are: the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France and China. These states were selected as permanent members as they were the most powerful immediately after the Second World War and because they constituted the victors in the War.
- The UN’s most visible public figure, and the representative head, is the Secretary-General.
- The present Secretary-General is Antonio Guterres from Portugal. He is the ninth Secretary-General of the UN. He took over as the Secretary-General on1 January 2017. He was the Prime Minister of Portugal since 2002 and the UN High Commissioner for Refugees since 2015.
- The UN consists of many different structures and agencies. War and peace and differences between member states are discussed in the General Assembly as well as the Security Council. Social and economic issues are dealt by many agencies including the World Health Organisation (WHO), the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), the United Nations Human Rights Commission (UNHRC), the United Nations High Commission for Refugees (UNHCR), the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), and the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO), among others.
OR
The UN performs its role successfully in maintaining peace in the world. This can be justified from the points given below:
1. US leaders, in spite of their frequent criticism of the UN, see the organisation as serving a purpose in bringing together over 190 nations in dealing with conflict and social and economic development.
2. The UN provides an arena in which it is possible to modify US attitudes and policies.
3. Although the rest of the world is rarely united against Washington, and it is virtually impossible to ‘balance’ US power. However, the UN does provide a space within which argument against specific US attitudes and policies are heard and compromises and concessions can be shaped.
4. The UN is an imperfect body, but without it, the world would be worse off. Given the growing connections and links between societies and issues—what we often call interdependence—it is hard to imagine how more than seven billion people would live together without an organisation such as the UN.
5. Technology promises to increase planetary interdependence, and therefore the importance of the UN will only increase.
6. Peoples and governments also find ways of supporting and using the UN and other international organisations in ways that are consistent with their own interests and the interests of the international community more broadly.
Question 28.
Describe these obstacles that delayed the merger of Jammu and Kashmir with India.
OR
Describe the areas of tension that arose on different occasions after independence. Which political aspirations were the causes of those tensions? [6]
Answer:
The issue of regional aspiration of Jammu & Kashmir is known as Kashmiriyat. Before 1947, Jammu and Kashmir was a princely state.
Maharaja Hari Singh, the ruler of Jammu & Kashmir did not want to merge either with India or Pakistan. He wanted to maintain an independent status for his state. On the other hand, the Pakistani leaders thought that since a great majority of the population of the state was Muslim, the state should merge with Pakistan.
But this is not how the people of the state themselves saw it—they thought of themselves as Kashmiris only. Pakistan sent tribal infiltrations to capture Kashmir. This forced Maharaja Hari Singh to ask India for military help. India extended military help only after Maharaja has signed the ‘Instrument of Accession’ with the government of India.
The issue was taken to the United Nations Organisation, which in its resolution dated 21 April, 1948 recommended a three-step process to resolve the issue. Sheikh Abdullah took over as the Prime Minister of the State of J&K in March 1948 while India agreed to grant it provisional autonomy under the Article 370.
OR
When the interest of one region or a state is asserted against the country as a whole or against another state then it can be called regionalism. Regionalism has remained perhaps the most potent force in Indian politics ever since independence.
1. Roots of regionalism are in India’s manifold diversity of languages, culture, ethnic groups, and religions and so on. For many centuries, India remained the land of many languages, cultures and traditions.
2. At first the issue of Jammu and Kashmir came up, which resulted as a political conflict between India and Pakistan due to political aspirations of that region after independence. Main demand was for a separate Kashmiri nation, merging with Pakistan and having greater autonomy for the state.
3. In some parts of the northeast, there was no consensus about being a part of India. First Nagaland and the Mizoram witnessed strong movements demanding separation from India.
4. Demands were mainly for political autonomy and secession from the India.
5. In the south, some groups from the Dravid movement briefly toyed with the idea of a separate country.
6. The movement focused on opposition to the Brahmins’ dominance, political and cultural domination of the North and against making Hindi the country’s official language.
7. From the late 1950s, people speaking the Punjabi language started agitating for a separate state for themselves. This demand was finally accepted and the States of Punjab and Haryana were created in 1966. Later, the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand were created. Thus, the challenge of diversity was met by redrawing the internal boundaries of the country.
Question 29.
Critically evaluate the impact of the changing role of the state in the developing countries in the light of globalisation.
OR
How has globalisation impacted on India and how is India in turn impacting on globalisation? [6]
Answer:
In the light of globalization, the states generate an impact on the developing countries in the following ways:
1. The old ‘Welfare State’ is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs the functions such as maintenance of law and order security of its citizens. Now, it is the market that determines the economic and social priorities.
2. The state continues to discharge its essential functions (law of order, national security) and consciously withdraws from certain domains from which it wish to.
3. In some respect, state capacity has received an augment as a consequence of globalisation, with enhanced technologies available at disposal of the state to collect information about its citizens.
4. The entry and the increased role of multinational companies has lead in reduction in capacity of government to take decision on its own.
OR
Impact of globalisation on India:
1. With the Multi-National companies have been set up new job opportunities also generated.
2. India has opened up its market and transformed its economy from a protected economy to open economy.
3. Foreign Direct Investment have also increased.
4. It has invited the inflow of private foreign capital and export-oriented activities.
India’s impact on globalisation:
1. In 1991 as the response to a financial crisis, the Indian economy was liberalised to attract foreign trade and foreign investment.
2. With its large population speaking English, there has been a lot of outsourcing to India in the form of call centres.
3. To promote globalisation, India has adopted an open economy.
4. Private sectors were permitted to expand in the country.
Question 30.
What is Agenda 21? What is meant by common, but differentiated responsibilities?
OR
Describe how water scarcity across the world can lead to ‘water wars’. [6]
Answer:
Agenda 21: It is a non-binding voluntarily implemented action plan of the United Nations (UN) with regard to sustainable development. It is a product of the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in 1992. The ’21’ in Agenda 21 means 21st century. It is a plan to reduce emission which increases Chlorofluorocarbons or greenhouse gases resulting in global warming.
There are differences between the approaches of the countries, the global North wanted everyone to equally share the ecological responsibilities, whereas the global South claimed that the ecological disturbances were created by the industrial development in the Northern states and the North must take the responsibility, to improve the conditions.
Since the developing nations are on the way to achieve industrialisation, the rules and restrictions for the North and the South should not be the same. As the requirements of the developing nations are not same, it should be considered in different process and laws.
Therefore, the debate was accepted at the Earth Summit in 1992 in the Rio Declaration and is called the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities. The most important part of the Rio Declaration says the ‘States shall cooperate’in the spirit of global partnership to conserve, protect and restore the health and integrity of the Earth’s ecosystem.
In view of the different contributions of global environmental degradation, states have common but differentiated responsibilities. The developed countries acknowledge the responsibility that they bear in the international pursuit of sustainable development in view of the pressures their societies place on the global environment and of the technological and financial resources they command.
OR
Water is the most valuable natural resource as it is essential for human survival and life on the earth. Half a billion people in the world remain affected by severe water scarcity all year round. However, the availability of freshwater for human consumption is highly under stress because of a variety of factors.
Water scarcity is the lack of freshwater resources to satisfy water demand. It is manifested by partial or no satisfaction of expressed demand, economic competition for water quantity or quality, disputes between users, irreversible groundwater depletion, and negative effects on the environment.
Regional variations and the scarcity of freshwater increase the possibility of disagreements over shared water resources as a leading source of conflicts. The possibility of violent conflict over this life-sustaining resource is referred to ‘water wars’. Disagreement arises due to a downstream state’s objection to pollution, excessive irrigation, or the construction of dams by an upstream (upper riparian) state, which can degrade the quality of water.
Sometimes, states use force to seize freshwater resources which instigates violence like those between Israel, Syria, and Jordan in the 1950s and 1960s over attempts by each side to divert water from the Jordan and Yarmuk Rivers, and more recent threats between Turkey, Syria, and Iraq over the construction of dams on the Euphrates River. We have witnessed historically those countries who share rivers often tend to involve in military conflicts.