Practicing the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions Set 1 allows you to get rid of exam fear and be confident to appear for the exam.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 1 with Solutions
Time: 3 Hours.
Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
- All questions are compulsory.
- Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
- Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words each.
- Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
- Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
- Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170 words.
Section – A (12 Marks)
Question 1.
The movement ‘Arab Spring’ that began in 2009 later turned into a _______. [1]
(a) Social Movement
(b) Religious Movement
(c) Political Movement
(d) Economic Movement
Answer:
(c) Political Movement
Explanation: Consequently, the Arab Spring movement resulted in a bitter conflict between religious leaders consolidating power and growing support for democracy in many Muslim-majority states.
Question 2.
Name the Soviet leader who faced a coup in the year 1991. [1]
(a) Boris Yelstin
(b) Mikhail Gorbachev
(c) Leonid Brezhnev
(d) Joseph Stalin
Answer:
(b) Mikhail Gorbachev
Explanation: The August Coup, also known as the 1991 Soviet coup d’etat attempt, was a failed attempt by hardliners in the Soviet Union’s Communist Party to seize control of the country from Mikhail Gorbachev, who was Soviet President and General Secretary of the Communist Party at the time.
Question 3.
Select one of the most appropriate statements for the ‘ASEAN WAY’. [1]
(a) Reflects the lifestyle of ASEAN members
(b) Is an informal and cooperative interaction among ASEAN members
(c) Is the defence policy followed by the ASEAN members
(d) Is the philosophical principle that connects all the ASEAN members
Answer:
(b) Is an informal and cooperative interaction among ASEAN members
Explanation: The unique diplomatic engagement with its member states, known as the ASEAN Way, distinguishes ASEAN from others and allows it to sustain regional peace and cooperation. It is an informal and cooperative interaction amongst ASEAN nations.
Question 4.
Choose the correct set of countries that refused to adopt the Maastricht Treaty and European currency, Euro? [1]
(a) Britain and France
(b) Denmark and Sweden
(c) US and USSR
(d) Canada and Sweden
Answer:
(b) Denmark and Sweden
Explanation: Denmark and Sweden had opposed the Maastricht Treaty and the Eurozone’s introduction. This inhibits the Union’s ability to act on matters of foreign policy and defence.
Directions for Q.Nos. 5 and 6
In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read these statements and choose one correct answer from the given options.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Question 5.
Assertion (A): Traditional Security accepts confidence building as a means of avoiding violence.
Reason (R): Confidence building is a process in which countries share ideas and information with their rivals. [1]
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: The traditional security methods gave emphasis to the building up of the confidence with the other nations for avoiding violence. However, there are several other methods for maintaining the traditional security.
Question 6.
Assertion (A): The real challenge to Indira Gandhi came not from the opposition but from within her own party.
Reason (R): She had to deal with the ‘Syndicate’, a group of powerful and influential leaders from within the Congress. [1]
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: The Syndicate had played a role in the installation of Indira Gandhi as the Prime Minister. These leaders expected Indra Gandhi to follow their advice. But Indira attempted to assert her position within the government and the party.
Question 7.
Terrorism refers to: [1]
(a) A bomb blast in a marketplace or train etc.
(b) Systematic creation of atmosphere of fear in society using brutal violence
(c) An external attack by any military group
(d) Violence created by a group of people or an individual
Answer:
(b) Systematic creation of atmosphere of fear in society using brutal violence
Explanation: Terrorism is the systematic instillation of fear in society through the use of violence to make the people terrorise and also challenge the government of the state about the lapse of their security.
Question 8.
Which of the following statements about NITI Aayog are true? [1]
(i) NITI Aayog acts as a “think tank” of the Union Government.
(ii) NITI Aayog acts against terrorism.
(iii) NITI Aayog acts in the spirit of cooperative federalism.
(iv) NITI Aayog decides more role for bigger states and smaller role for smaller states.
Codes
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation: NITI Aayog serves as the Union Government’s “think tank.” And renders advice on important policy matters. NITI Aayog operates in a cooperative federalist spirit and engage with all the major stakeholders in decision-making process. The NITI Aayog also agrees on a higher role for larger states and a reduced role for smaller states.
Question 9.
Name the personality who drafted Second Five-Year Plan. [1]
(a) K. C. Neogy
(b) T.T. Krishnamachari
(c) Smt. Durgabai Deshmukh
(d) P. C. Mahalanobis
Answer:
(d) P. C. Mahalanobis
Explanation: Professor P. C. Mahalanobis produced ‘Draft Recommendations for the Formulation of the Second Five Year Plan’ in March 1955 which kept prime focus on industrialisation.
Question 10.
Arrange the following in chronological order: [1]
(i) Second General Elections
(ii) V.V. Giri elected as the President of India
(iii) Fourth General Elections
(iv) Congress (R)-CPI alliance won many seats in General Elections.
Codes:
(a) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(b) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(c) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(d) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Explanation:
• India held its second general election in 1957.
• In 1967, the fourth general election was held.
• V. V. Giri Giri was sworn in as President of India on August 24, 1969, and served in that capacity until August 24, 1974, when he was succeeded by Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed.
• Election result of 1971: The Congress (R) – CPI alliance won a grand victory as ever won in the previous four general elections.
Question 11.
Name the judge of the Allahabad High Court who declared Mrs. Indira Gandhi’s election as invalid. [1]
(a) Om Prakash Trivedi
(b) Jagmohan Lai Sinha
(c) Narain Dutt Ojha
(d) Kunj Bihari Srivastava
Answer:
(b) Jagmohan Lai Sinha
Explanation: A petition, challenging the election of Indira Gandhi on the ground that she had used the services of government servants in her election compaign was filed with Allahabad High Court. Justice Jagmohan Lai Sinha of Allahabad High Court passed a judgement declaring Indra Gandhi’s election to the Lok Sabha invalid.
Question 12.
Find the odd one out in the context of proclamation of emergency. [1]
(a) Call for ‘Total Revolution’.
(b) The Railway Strike of 1974
(c) Naxalite Movement
(d) Gujarat Movement
Answer:
(c) Naxalite Movement
Explanation: The Naxalite movement was launched in 1967 by poor peasants in opposition to the government’s socioeconomic policies, and targeted rich landowners.,The major leaders of the movement were Charu Mazumdar and Kanu Sanyal. The Naxalites attain their objectives by violent means. Naxalites have emerged as a major internal threat for the country, wreaking havoc on state apparatus in places like Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand.
Section – B (12 Marks)
Question 13.
Highlight any one feature of the multi-polar world as visualised by both Russia and India. [2]
Answer:
Features of a multi-polar world as visualised by both India and Russia:
(i) The coexistence of multiple powers in the international system leads to collective security and a collective reaction.
(ii) Negotiated international conflict resolution and independent foreign policy for all countries.
(iii) Decision making through bodies like the UN.
Question 14.
Name the countries included in South Asia and suggest one way to enhance peace and cooperation in this region. [2]
Answer:
South Asia:
(i) South Asia usually includes Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka (as well as Afghanistan).
(ii) Peace and cooperation can be enhanced in the region through organizations like SAARC and initiatives like SAFTA in political, social, economic and cultural spheres.
SAARC: The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is South Asia’s regional intergovernmental organisation and geopolitical union. SAARC was established on December 8, 1985, in Dhaka. Its headquarters are in Kathmandu, Nepal. Economic development and regional integration are promoted by the organisation.
In 2006, it established the South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA). SAARC has permanent diplomatic connections with the United Nations as an observer and has fostered relationships with international organisations such as the European Union.
Question 15.
Highlight any two issues that dominate the politics of North-East India.
Two issues that dominate the politics of North-East India are: [2]
Answer:
Demands for Autonomy: The demand for autonomy is the first important issue confronting the North-Eastern states. When non-Assamese believed that the Assam government was imposing the Assamese language on them, they demanded autonomy and tribal state to be carved out of Assam.
Movement for Secessionist: Under the leadership of Laldenga, Mizo community wanted to be free from the subjugation of India because they believed that they were never a part of British India. Thus two decades-long battle between Mizo insurgent and the Indian Army were continued. In 1986 a peace agreement was signed between Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga. Opposition to outsiders: Local communities stood against people who were outsiders or migrants because they were treated as encroachers on scarce resources such as on land, employment and political power.
Question 16.
While throwing some light on the Mandal Issue, give one reason for anti-Mandal protests in India. [2]
Answer:
(i) The National Front government decided to implement the recommendation of the Mandal Commission in 1990. The recommendation was that the 27 percent jobs in the Central government should be reserved for the Other Backward Classes.
(ii) This led to violent anti-Mandal protests in different parts of the country. This dispute between the supporters and opponents of OBC reservations was known as the Mandal issue. This issue has played an important role in shaping politics in India since 1989.
Question 17.
Evaluate balance of power as a significant component of traditional security policy. [2]
Answer:
Governments are very sensitive to the balance of power between their country and other countries. They do work hard to maintain a favourable balance of power with other countries especially those with whom they have differences or those with whom they have had conflicts in the past. A good way of maintaining balance of power is to build up one’s military power.
Although economic and technological power are also important since they are the basis for military power. The rivalry between India and Pakistan is an example of balance of power where both the nations are constantly adopting new difence technology to balance.
Question 18.
How far did the Rajiv Gandhi- Longowal Accord succeed in bringing normalcy in Punjab? [2]
Answer:
The Rajiv Gandhi-Longowal Accord or the Punjab Accord was a step towards bringing normalcy to Punjab but peace did not come easily or immediately and the cycle of violence continued nearly for a decade. The central government had to impose President’s rule in the state and the normal electoral and political process was suspended.
It was not easy to restore the political process in the atmosphere of suspicion and violence. When elections were held in Punjab in 1992 only 24% of the electorates turned out to vote. Militancy was eventually eradicated by the security forces. Peace returned to Punjab by the middle of the 1990s.
Section – C (20 Marks)
Question 19.
‘Some of the most significant responses to the challenge of environmental degradation have come from the environmental movements’. Justify the statement with special reference to movements against extraction of earth and against mega-dams. [4]
Answer:
(i) Extraction of Earth:
(a) The mineral industry’s extraction of earth, its use of chemicals, its pollution of waterways and land, its displacement of community continue to invite criticism and resistance in various parts of the globe.
(b) One example is of Philippines where a vast network of groups and organizations campaign against the Western Mining Corporation, an Australia-based multinational company. Much opposition to the company in its own country, Australia is based on anti-nuclear sentiments and advocacy for the basic rights of Australian indigenous peoples.
(ii) Mega-dams:
(a) Today, wherever a mega-dam is being built in the world, one is likely to find an environmental movement opposing it. The early 1980s saw the first anti-dam movement launched in the North, namely, the campaign to save the Franklin river and its surrounding forest in Australia.
(b) India has had some of the leading anti-dam, pro-river movements. Narmada Bachao Andolan is one of these best-known movements
Question 20.
Explain the areas of cooperation and disagreement between India and Bangladesh. [4]
Answer:
Areas of cooperation between India and Bangladesh are as follows:
Bangladesh is a part of India’s Look East policy: In March 1972, these two countries inked a trade agreement. It resulted in Bangladesh’s economic rebuilding. Furthermore, Bangladesh is part of India’s Look East programme, which seeks to connect with Southeast Asia via Myanmar. The Indo-Bangladesh Joint Economic Commission convened in 1997. It committed to accelerate cooperation in finance, trade, transportation, and communication. Several high-level visits between India and Bangladesh led in the promotion, understanding, and strengthening of bilateral relations.
Farakka Agreement (1977): This agreement was struck in October 1977 to divide Ganga water between the two countries. The agreement expired in 1982, and a new Memorandum of Understanding was signed the following year. In 1983 and 1986, agreements were also signed. In December 1996, a new negotiated agreement was reached. The pact is founded on the values of justice and equitable. In addition, India and Bangladesh have formed a Joint Rivers Commission to tackle water-related issues.
Areas of disagreement between India and Bangladesh are as follows:
(i) River water dispute i.e., sharing of Ganga and Brahmaputra river waters has been a bone of contention.
(ii) Indian government is unhappy over the denial of illegal immigration by Bangladesh. Illegal immigrants are a major source of contention between India and Bangladesh. Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura, and West Bengal are the states most affected by this immigration. A number of rebel training camps have sprung up in Assam, Tripura, and Nagaland. It is also disturbing the country’s demographic ratio, particularly in Assam’s Kamrup and Nalbari districts.
(iii) Bangladesh’s support to anti-Indian Islamic fundamentalist groups is not appreciated by the Indian government.
Question 21.
Do you agree with the statement that the foreign policy of independent India has pursued the dream of a peaceful world”? Support your answer with three suitable arguments. [4]
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the given statement. Arguments for the same are as follows:
The foreign policy of independent India vigorously pursued the dream of a peaceful world by advocating the policy of non-alignment, by reducing the Cold War confrontations and by contributing human resources to the UN peacekeeping operations. During the Cold War, the US-led North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) and the Soviet-led Warsaw Pact came into existence. India advocated non-alignment as the ideal foreign policy and sometimes the balance did not appear perfect.
India did not join either of the two camps. During the Cold War era, India wanted to keep distance from the military alliances led by the US and by the Soviet Union against each other. In 1956 Britain attacked Egypt over the Suez Canal issue, India led the world protest against this neo-colonial invasion. In the same year when the USSR invaded Hungary, India did not join its public condemnation. Despite such a situation, by and large India did take an independent stand on various International issues.
Question 22.
Analyse two reasons for the imposition of national emergency in India on June 25, 1975. [4]
Answer:
Reasons for imposing emergency in India on 25th June 1975 are:
(i) Indira Gandhi’s election to Lok Sabha was declared invalid by the Allahabad High Court. It meant that legally she was no longer an MP and therefore could not remain as the Prime Minister unless she was once again elected as an MP within 6 months. But on June 24th, the Supreme Court granted her a partial stay on the High Court order till the time her appeal was decided. She could remain an MP but could not take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha.
(ii) Opposition parties under Jayaprakash Narayan demanded Mrs. Gandhi’s resignation. It was another reason why Indira Gandhi imposed a national emergency. She wanted to save her position.
(iii) Jayaprakash Narayan asked army, police and government employees not to obey orders of the government. He called for a Total Revolution and became the symbol of opposition to Emergency.
Question 23.
“The Soviet Union became a great power after the Second World War. However in no time the Soviet system became bureaucratic and authoritarian making life difficult for its citizens.” Do you agree with the given statement? Give arguments to prove your answer. [4]
Answer:
I do agree with the statement that the Soviet Union became a great power after the Second World War but very soon the system became very bureaucratic and authoritarian.
Arguments in favour of the given statement are as follows:
(i) The Soviet economy after the Second World War was more developed than the rest of the world except for the US. It had a complex communication network and vast energy resources. The Soviet state ensured a minimum standard of living for all citizens and the government subsidised basic necessities including health, education, healthcare and other welfare schemes. The Soviet system however became very bureaucratic and authoritarian making life very difficult for its citizens.
(ii) Lack of democracy and the absence of freedom of speech stifled people who often expressed their dissent in jokes and cartoons.
(iii) Most of the institutions of the Soviet state needed reform; the one party system represented by the Soviet party of the Soviet Union had tight control over all institutions and was unaccountable to the people. The party refused to recognise the urge of the people in the 15 different republics that formed the Soviet Union to manage their own affairs including their cultural affairs.
(iv) Although, on paper Russia was only one of the 15 republics that together constituted the USSR, in reality Russia dominated everything and people from other regions felt neglected and often suppressed. Thus, we can say that indeed the Soviet Union became a great power after the Second World War but very soon the system became very bureaucratic and authoritarian.
Section – D (12 Marks)
Question 24.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]
After the end of the bipolar structure of world politics in the early 1990s, it became clear that alternative centres of political and economic power could limit America’s dominance. Thus, European Union and ASEAN emerged as forces to reckon with. BRICS has also emerged as a new centre of power on the world stage. The term BRICS refers to Brazil, Russia, India and South Africa. The key objectives of BRICS are primarily to cooperate and distribute mutual economic benefits among its members besides non-interference in the internal policies of each nation and mutual equality. The 11th Conference of BRICS concluded in Brazil in 2019.
(i) Name the political leader who chaired the 11th Conference of BRICS.
(a) Leonid Brezhnev
(b) Jair Bolsonaro
(c) Deodoro da Fonseca
(d) Jacob Zuma
Answer:
(b) Jair Bolsonaro
Explanation: Brazilian President Jair Bolsonaro had chaired the 11th conference of BRICS.
(ii) Which among the following statements about BRICS is correct?
(a) BRICS was founded to promote the welfare of the people of South Asia and to improve their quality of life.
(b) BRICS countries respect mutual equality.
(c) BRICS was established to create a free Trade Agreement (FTA) for investment, labour and services.
(d) The headquarters of the BRICS are at Kathmandu (Nepal).
Answer:
(b) BRICS countries respect mutual equality.
Explanation: Objectives of BRICS
1. To encourage and realise economic development.
2. To accomplish regional development.
3. To eliminate trade impediments.
4. Maximum resource utilisation.
5. Creating international harmony and relationships.
6. Respect mutual equality
(iii) BRIC turned into BRICS after the inclusion of South Africa in its first meeting in the year.
(a) 2019
(b) 2009
(c) 2010
(d) 2011
Answer:
(c) 2011
Explanation: When South Africa joined the BRIC organization in 2011, the acronym was changed to BRICS.
(iv) BRICS was founded in 2006 in:
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) Russia
(d) China
Answer:
(c) Russia
Explanation: The foundation of the BRIC was led in the year 2009 and its first meeting took place in Russia.
Question 25.
In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). [4]
Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with the respective serial numbers of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the format that follows:
(i) The state where a coalition led by the CPI formed the government in the year 1957.
(ii) The state related to leader Shyama Prasad Mukherjee.
(iii) The state related to Karpuri Thakur, who implemented reservation for backward class.
(iv) The state related to K. Kamraj, who started the Mid Day Meal program for school students.
| Sr. Number for the information used | Alphabet Concerned | Name of the states |
| (i) | ||
| (ii) | ||
| (iii) | ||
| (iv) |
Answer:
| Sr. Number for the information used | Alphabet Concerned | Name of the states |
| (i) | C | Kerala |
| (ii) | B | West Bengal |
| (iii) | D | Bihar |
| (iv) | A | Tamil Nadu |
Question 26.
Study the given Cartoon and answer the questions that follow: [4]
(i) Border disputes between India and China erupted in 1960. Pandit Nehru was having talks with his counterpart _______ in China which proved futile
(a) Mao Tsetung
(b) President Jinping
(c) Zhou Enlai
(d) Dalai Lama
Answer:
(a) Mao Tsetung
(ii) Name the place in Indian territory which was occupied by China in the year 1962.
(a) Chagai hills
(b) Aksai Chin
(c) Balochistan
(d) Nagaland
Answer:
(b) Aksai Chin
(iii) _______ was the defence minister of India during the Indo-China war?
(a) Kailash Nath Katju
(b) V.K. Krishna Menon
(c) Baldev Singh
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(b) V. K. Krishna Menon
(iv) Name the agreement signed between India and China on April 29, 1954.
(a) Peace Agreement
(b) Panchsheel Agreement
(c) Standstill Agreement
(d) Tashkent Agreement
Answer:
(b) Panchsheel Agreement
Section – E (24 Marks)
Question 27.
Give an analysis of the cultural and political consequences of globalization.
OR
Analyze any three reasons for resistance to globalization. [6]
Answer:
(i) Cultural consequences of globalization:
(a) The cultural effect of globalization leads to the fear that this process poses a threat to cultures in the world. It does so, because globalization leads to the rise of a uniform culture or what is called cultural homogenisation. The popularity of a burger or blue jeans, some argue, has a lot to do with the powerful influence of the American way of life. This leads to the shrinking of the rich cultural heritage of the entire globe.
(b) But sometimes external influences simply enlarge our choices and sometimes they modify our culture without overwhelming the traditional. Blue jeans, on the other hand, can go well with a homespun khadi kurta.
(c) While cultural homogenisation is an aspect of globalization, the same process also generates precisely the opposite effect. It leads to each culture becoming more different and distinctive. This phenomenon is called cultural heterogenisation.
(ii) Political consequences of globalization:
(a) Political consequences of globalization at the most simple level, results in erosion of state capacity, i.e., the ability of the government to do what they do.
(b) All over the world, ‘welfare state’ is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions, such as ,the maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens.
(c) One has to keep in mind that globalization does not always reduce state capacity. State will remain a supreme organisation. Technology may rather enhance the capacity of the state. Thus the cultural and political consequences of globalization are both negative and positive in nature.
OR
The arguments that have been made against globalization are as follows:
(i) Contemporary globalization represents a particular phase of global capitalism that makes the rich much richer and the poor much poorer is the argument given by the leftists.
(ii) Since globalization has weakened the state, it is unable to protect the interest of the poor.
(iii) The idea of globalization is contrary to self-reliance and protectionism.
(iv) People will lose their age-old values and traditions and customs because of globalization.
(v) Some critics think that globalization is another form of imperialism. The World Social Forum is opposed to neo-liberal globalization.
(vi) Unfair trade practices by the economically powerful states will become a common phenomenon because of globalization. In 1999 this was highlighted at Seattle during the WTO Ministerial Meeting.
Question 28.
In this changing world, a strengthened and revitalised UN is desirable. Highlight the necessary reforms for an empowered United Nations. [6]
OR
Analyse the composition of the United Nations Security Council. What according to your opinion is the major difference in the privileges given to its permanent and non-permanent members?
Answer:
Yes, in this changing world a strengthened and revitalized UN is desirable. In fact, reform and improvement are fundamental to any organisation.
Suggested reforms for the UN are as follows :
(i) Reforms in the organisational structure and processes of the UN.
(ii) Review of the issues that fall within the jurisdiction of the UN is needed.
(iii) Major concern has been the composition of the Security Council, which has remained largely static while the UN General Assembly Membership has expanded.
(iv) Increase in the number of both permanent and non-permanent members in UNSC. The numbers of both permanent and non-permanent members of United Nations should be increased. This will help in more representation.
(v) Some proposals are needed to improve UNs budgetary procedures and its administration.
(vi) Some major and minor countries want the organisation to play a greater role in peace and security missions. The UN should pay more attention to its role in peace and security mission and to resolve international disputes by discussing with its member states.
(vii) Other countries also want the UN to play a humanitarian role.
OR
(i) Analysis of the Composition of the United Nations Security Council is as follows:
(a) The Security Council consists of fifteen members. There are five permanent members and ten non-permanent.
(b) Five permanent members are the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France and China.
(c) Ten non-permanent members serve for only two years at a time and give way after that period to newly elected members. A country cannot be re-elected immediately after completing a term of two years.
(ii) Difference in privileges of the permanent and non-permanent members:
(a) We must understand the fact that these five states were selected as permanent members because they were the most powerful states immediately after the Second World War and were victors in the war.
(b) These permanent members have the privilege of Veto power. This means that they can vote in a negative manner to stall a decision (because of this privilege.)
(c) The United Nations Security Council has five permanent members and ten non-permanent members. The General Assembly elects non-permanent members for two-year periods.
(d) These decisions are binding on all UN members. Non-permanent members do not have such privileges.
Question 29.
Enlist the main considerations for bringing the Princely States with the Indian Union. Name the leader who played the historic role in this direction. What was his contribution? [6]
OR
Discuss three reasons for setting up of the States Reorganization Commission after India’s independence.
Answer:
With the partition and independence of India, the British crown gave rights to princely states to select their own fate. They had the option of joining either Dominion (India or Pakistan) or remaining independent. Given that all but ten of the 565 states, resided within the territory that eventually fell under its administration, India faced a tremendous challenge.
The British government had nurtured these republics in order to serve as bulwarks against the political turmoil developing throughout India. They had become reactionary strongholds. Their ab‘ rulership traditions forbade any freedom movement from even raising its head. Bringing these princely republics into Indian Union was critical for nation-building and national unity.
Three points governed the government’s position. Initially, the inhabitants of the most princely states desired union with India. Second, the government’s stance was quite flexible, and third, in the context of Partition, which highlighted the battle over land demarcation, was not in favour of Indian national unity.
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, the Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister, handled their dilemma within a year, much to his credit as a statesman. Furthermore, with the exceptions of Kashmir and Hyderabad, no lives were lost. Sardar Patel was adamant about establishing a powerful and united India.
As a result, he strained every nerve to join the states to the rest of India. He begged, cajoled, and even threatened the unwilling with severe repercussions. Lord Mountbatten also assisted him in completing this arduous assignment.
First and foremost, Sardar Patel sought cooperation from the princes, asking them to behave as patriots and reminding them that the alternative would not be in their best interests. He promised the Princes huge privy purses and complete ownership. Sardar Patel also ensured that their subjects had the same rights, liberties, and benefits as Indian citizens.
The answer was really positive. The Instrument of Accession was signed by prince after prince. Except for three states within its physical boundaries, all had acceded to India by August 15, 1947. Junagarh, Hyderabad, and Kashmir were the exceptions.
OR
Reasons for setting up of the States Reorganisation Commission:
(i) Our national movement had promised the linguistic principle as the basis of formation of states. In fact after the Nagpur session of Congress in 1920, the principle was recognised as the basis of the reorganisation of the Indian National Congress party itself. Many provincial Congress committees were created by linguistic zones which did not follow the administrative divisions of British India.
(ii) Things changed after independence and partition. Our leaders felt that carving out States on the basis of language might lead to disruption and disintegration, so the central leadership decided to postpone the matter of reorganisation of states.
(iii) This decision of the national leadership was challenged by the local leaders and the people. Protests began in Telugu-speaking areas of the old Madras province which included present-day Tamil Nadu, parts of Andhra Pradesh, Kerala and Karnataka. This came to be known as the Vishalandhra movement.
(iv) This movement demanded that the Telugu-speaking areas should be separated from the Madras province of which they were a part and be made into a separate Andhra province. Very soon this movement gathered momentum.
(v) Congress leader, and a veteran Gandhian died after 56 days of indefinite fast. People in large numbers took to streets and their violent outbursts in Andhra region. Finally the Prime Minister announced the formation of a separate Andhra state in December 1952.
(vi) The formation of Andhra Pradesh spurred the struggle for making of other states on linguistic lines in other parts of the country. These struggles forced the central government into appointing a States Reorganisation Commission in 1953 to look into the question of redrawing of the boundaries of States.
Question 30.
‘Coalition governments proved to be a boon for democracy in India.’ Support the statement with three relevant arguments.
OR
Analyse three major developments towards the end of 1980s that made a long-lasting impact on the politics of India. [6]
Answer:
The emergence of coalition governments in India took place in the following ways:
(i) During 1967 elections, the opposition parties realised that the division of their votes kept the Congress in power. This led to formation of anti-Congress fronts and rise of ‘non-Congressism’ in Indian politics. This brought the opposition together. As a result, coalition governments were formed in eight states which included Punjab, Haryana, UP, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and other states.
(ii) In the elections of Lok Sabha in 1971 and State Assembly elections in 1972, Congress achieved victories, but the Congress under Mrs. Indira Gandhi did not have the capacity to absorb all tensions and conflicts that the ‘Congress System’ was known for.
(iii) The declaration of emergency in 1975 once again brought the opposition together.
(iv) Janta Party was formed and it came to power in 1977. But the Janta Party could not remain united. It lacked direction, leadership and a common programme. Congress once again won elections held in 1980 and 1984. It, however, depended on the appeal of one leader- Mrs. Indira Gandhi.
(v) In the 1989 elections, the Congress was the largest party but it sat in the opposition. The National Front government, an alliance of Janta Dal and some regional parties, was formed.
(vi) The election of 1989 marked the end of Congress dominance and beginning of coalition governments because after this, one or two parties never got most of the votes or seats. No single party secured a clear majority of seats in any Lok Sabha elections. This initiated an era of coalition government at the Center in which regional parties played a crucial role in forming ruling alliances.
OR
The main developments during the end of 1980s that had a long-lasting impact on the politics of India are as follows:
End of Congress System: The fall of the Congress party in the 1989 elections was the most significant development of this period. The Congress party now has only 197 seats. After the 1991 mid-term elections, the Congress improved its performance and reclaimed control. However, the 1989 elections heralded the end of the “Congress system.”
Congress remained the leading party, although it lost its previous dominance. Though the party came back in power in 1991 after Sh. Rajiv Gandhi’s assassination but it lost its dominance of the political scene as earlier.
Mandal issue: The growth of the Mandal issue was another key event. The decision of the V.R Singh government to implement the Mandal commission’s recommendation for OBCs in 1990 sparked violent anti-Mandal protests across the country.
This issue started with the National Front government that recommended its implementation in 1990 which was reservation of 27% jobs in the Central government for OBC candidates only. This brought widespread anger and played a crucial role in shaping politics since 1989.
New Economic Reforms: During this time, India dramatically altered its economic course by connecting the Indian economy to the global market and pursuing a policy of liberalisation, privatisation, and globalization (LPG). It is also known as the New Economic Reforms or the Structural Adjustment Programme.
These were announced as the structural adjustment programmes that were initiated by Sh. Rajiv Gandhi but were more visible under Sh. Narsimha Rao’s tenure from 1991. They opened up the country’s economy to the world and improved our foreign reserves and the successive governments have continued to broadly follow them.
Assassination of Sh. Rajiv Gandhi: He was assassinated during an election rally in Tamil Nadu by the LTTE group. The elections of 1991 saw Congress emerge as the largest party after this and Sh. Narsimha Rao was appointed as the Prime Minister.