Practicing the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography with Solutions Set 8 allows you to get rid of exam fear and be confident to appear for the exam.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 8 for Practice
Time: 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
- Question paper is divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D
- In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ-type questions.
- In section B question number 18-23 are SA-type questions (80-100 words). Question 18 & 19 are Source based questions.
- In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
- In section D question number 29 & 30 are Map based questions having 5 subparts.
Section – A (17 Marks)
Question 1.
The revolution in transport came about only after the invention of the steam engine in the ________. [1]
(a) fifteenth century
(b) sixteenth century
(c) seventeenth century
(d) eighteenth century
Question 2.
Which of the following distribution is correct about Waterborne disease in India’s report given by World Health Organisation? [1]
(a) One-third
(b) One-half
(c) One-fourth
(d) None of these
Question 3.
Arrange the following steps in a sequential order to show the formation and functioning of a cooperative farming society. [1]
(i) The cooperative society helps farmers, to procure all the important inputs of farming.
(ii) The cooperative society helps farmers in processing of quality products and selling the products at the most favourable terms.
(iii)They form a cooperative society by pooling in their resources voluntarily.
(iv)A group of farmers come together for more efficient and profitable farming.
Choose the correct option:
(a) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(b) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(d) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
Question 4.
In which sector did the large proportion of people work in the initial stages of economic development? [1]
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Intermediary sector
(d) Tertiary sector
Question 5.
Which of these scholars defined Human Geography as ‘the synthetic study of relationship between human societies and earth’s surface? [1]
(a) Ratzel
(b) Paul Vidal de la Blache
(c) Ellen C. Semple
(d) Griffith Taylor
Question 6.
Which term best describes the following statement: ‘Humans create possibilities with the resources obtained from the environment and their activities create a cultural landscape”? [1]
(a) Opportunism
(b) Humanisation of nature
(c) Possibilism
(d) Resource management
Question 7.
Which among the following city is the major example of environmental pollution in urban areas in recent years? [1]
(a) Solid wastes
(b) Congestion
(c) Overcrowding
(d) Inadequate facilities to support the rapidly-growing population
Question 8.
Considered the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options: [1]
1. Noise pollution is location specific and its intensity declines with increase in distance from the source of pollution, i.e., industrial areas, arteries of transportation, airport, etc.
2. Noise pollution is hazardous in many metropolitan and big cities in India.
Options:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both the statements are incorrect
(d) Both the statements are correct
Question 9.
Which of the following is not correctly matched? [1]
| Water ways | Stretch |
| (a) NW- 5 | 501 Km |
| (b) NW- 4 | 1078 Km |
| (c) NW- 3 | 205 Km |
| (d) NW- 2 | 891 Km |
Question 10.
Which of the following is not an important item which India exports to other countries? [1]
(a) Manufactured goods
(b) Readymade garments
(c) Cotton yam
(d) Machinery
Question 11.
Who among the following wrote ‘The Population Bomb’? [1]
(a) Ehrlich
(b) Rudolf Virchow
(c) Alexander Fleming
(d) Meadows
Question 12.
Which of the following is correctly matched that joined by the North-South corridor? [1]
(a) Srinagar – Kanyakumari
(b) Delhi – Kanyakumari
(c) Delhi – Chennai
(d) Srinagar – Chennai
Question 13.
Assertion: Unmetalled roads, though simple in construction, are not effective and serviceable for all seasons.
Reason: During the rainy season these become unmotorable and even the metalled ones are seriously handicapped during heavy rains and floods. [1]
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Question 14.
Assertion (A): India ranks 127 out of 172 countries of the world in terms of the Human Development Index by UNDP (2005).
Reason (R): India is grouped with the countries having medium human development. [1]
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Read the passage carefully and answer any three of the following questions:
In 1948, to liberalize the world from high customs tariffs and various other types of restrictions, General Agreement for Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was formed by some countries. In 1994, it was decided by the member countries to set up a permanent institution for look after the promotion of free and fair trade amongst nation and the GATT was transformed into the World Trade Organization from 1st January 1995. WTO is the only international organization dealing with the global rules of trade between nations. It sets the rules for the global trading system and resolves disputes between its member nations. WTO also covers trade in services, such as telecommunication and banking, and others issues such as intellectual rights.
The WTO has however been criticized and opposed by those who are worried about the effects of free trade and economic globalization. It is argued that free trade does not make ordinary people’s lives more prosperous. It is actually widening the gulf between rich and poor by making rich countries richer. This is because the influential nations in the WTO focus on their own commercial interests. Moreover, many developed countries have not fully opened their markets to products from developing countries. It is also argued that issues of health, worker’s rights, child labour and environment are ignored.
Question 15.
Formation of GATT was the result of high demand by countries for ________. [1]
(a) High taxes
(b) Permanent institution
(c) Liberalisation of trade
(d) Free and fair trade
Question 16.
In which year, WTO was formed? [1]
(a) 1948
(b) 1994
(c) 1995
(d) 1996
Question 17.
Which of the following is not a function of WTO? [1]
(a) Providing financial support to boost international trade
(b) Resolves disputes between its member nations
(c) Dealing with the global rules of trade
(d) Resolves disputes between its member nations
Section – B (18 Marks)
Question 18.
Study the given data and answer the following questions: [3]
(i) Which media has the highest number of user?
(ii) Why the above mentioned media has such a large base of users?
(iii) How does development play a role in the least number of users of internet, according to this data?
Question 19.
Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]
According to a newspaper report (The Hindu, 05.09.2006), the Oil and Natural Gas Commission has found potential zones of natural gas reserves in Ramanathapuram district. The survey is still in the initial stages. The exact quantity of gas reserves will be known only after the completion of the survey. But the results are encouraging.
(i) Name the newspaper in which the news related to the Oil and Natural Gas Commission has found potential zones of natural gas reserves in Ramanathapuram district was published.
(ii) In which Indian state, Ramanathapuram district is located?
(iii) What is the quantity of the gas reserves that will be found in Ramanathapuram (Tamil Nadu)?
Question 20.
In context to OPEC, answer the following questions: [3]
(a) Where is the headquarters of OPEC located?
(b) Name the commodity they focus upon.
(c) Mention two Asian countries which are member of OPEC.
OR
Write five advantages of oceanic transport.
Question 21.
Explain any three features of the world’s ‘welfare approach’ to human development. [3]
Question 22.
Why is Mumbai referred to be a “unique port”? Give three reasons.
OR
What role do seaports play in India’s overseas trade? Please give at least three reasons behind it. [3]
Question 23.
‘The Yamuna is one of the most polluted rivers in India.’ Elaborate any three causes of the severe pollution in the river. [3]
Section – C (25 Marks)
Question 24.
What are the two factors affecting tourism in the world? Explain each factor with suitable examples.
OR
“Outsourcing has resulted in opening up large numbers of jobs opportunities in several countries.” Analyze the statement with three suitable examples. [5]
Question 25.
Define ‘Human Geography’ in your own words. Mention any four fields of Human Geography. [5]
Question 26.
Discuss the reasons behind the HDI countries with High index value, Medium Index value and Low index value around the world.
OR
Explain the approaches to human development around the world. [5]
Question 27.
How far Indian development is a mixed bag of opportunities as well as neglect and deprivation? Explain. [5]
Question 28.
What do you mean by landfill? Suggest any three reasons why is landfill not a sustainable method of waste disposal? [5]
Section – D (10 Marks)
Question 29.
On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature. [5]
A. Identify the city where the headquarter of WTO is located.
B. A port of call in Yemen.
C. An important Iron and steel centre in Ukraine.
D. Identify the country that have most successful cooperative farming.
E. An important Iron and steel centre in U.K.
F. Identify the name of field in South of Africa that is use for pasturage and farmland.
G. A port on South Atlantic Coast of Brazil.
Question 30.
On the given political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols: [5]
A. A state with highest level of urbanization
B. Nuclear power plant in Uttar Pradesh.
C. Important iron ore exporting port in Karnataka.
D. State with lowest population density.
E. Identify oil refinery in Assam.
F. Identify the state which Neeru-Meeru (water and you) water harvesting started.
G. Identify the important manganese center of Odisha.