Practicing the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Psychology with Solutions Set 4 allows you to get rid of exam fear and be confident to appear for the exam.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Psychology Set 4 with Solutions
Time: 3 Hours.
Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
- All questions are compulsory except where internal choice has been given.
- Question Nos. 1-18 in Section A carry 1 mark each.
- Question Nos. 19-23 in Section B are Very Short Answer Type-I questions carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.
- Question Nos. 24-27 in Section C are Short Answer Questions Type-II carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
- Question Nos. 28-31 in Section D are Long Answer Type-I questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
- Question No. 32 in Section E is a Long Answer Type-II question carrying 6 marks. Answer to this question should not exceed 200 words.
- Question Nos. 33-36 in Section F are based on two cases given. Each case has two questions carrying two marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.
Section A (18 Marks)
Question 1.
___________is a set of skills that underline accurate perception, appraisal, expression and regulation of emotions. [1]
(A) Emotional incompetence
(B) Emotional intelligence
(C) Perceptual skills
(D) Powerful emotions
Answer:
(B) Emotional intelligence
Explanation: Emotional Intelligence is a set of skills that underline accurate perception, appraisal, expression and regulation of emotions. The key elements of El include Self-awareness, Self regulation, Motivation, Empathy, and Social Skills.
Question 2.
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory: [1]
(A) It was developed by Hathway and McKinley.
(B) Effective in identifying varieties of psychopathology.
(C) The revised type is called MMPI-2.
(D) All of the above.
Answer:
(D) All of the above.
Explanation: Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) was developed by McKinley and Hathway for psychiatric diagnosis but later applied to a variety of psychopathologies, such as hypochondriasis, depression, hysteria, masculinity, and femininity. This test is based on true/false questions. Its revised version is MMPI-2.
Question 3.
According to the Indian approach, personality is a combination of __________Gunas. [1]
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) None
Answer:
(B) 3
Explanation: These three gunas according to the Indian approach are called trigunas and are named sattva, rajas and tamas.
Question 4.
Shobhita did not get admission to the college of her choice. She told her friends that she never really wanted to go there. She is using a defence mechanism called___________. [1]
(A) Repression
(B) Projection
(C) Reaction Formation
(D) Denial
Answer:
(C) Reaction Formation
Explanation: Defence mechanisms are a way of reducing anxiety by distorting reality unconsciously. Reaction formation is -when a person defends against anxiety by adopting behaviours opposite to his/her true feelings. Here, Shobita is doing the same.
Question 5.
Who defined stress as “the nonspecific response of the body to any demand”? [1]
(A) Hans Selye
(B) Lazarus
(C) Holmes and Rahe
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Hans Selye
Explanation: Hans Selye is titled “The Father of Modem Stress Research” for his psychological study on stress and its effects. He defined stress as “the nonspecific response of the body to any demand”.
Question 6.
Which of these is the first stage of GAS? [1]
(A) Resistance Stage
(B) Exhaustion Stage
(C) Alarm Reaction Stage
(D) Burnout Stage
Answer:
(C) Alarm Reaction Stage
Explanation: The presence of a noxious stimulus or stressor leads to activation of the adrenal pituitary-cortex system. This triggers the release of hormones producing the stress response. So, the Alarm Reaction Stage is the first stage of General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS).
Question 7.
Reebika is experiencing stress due to noisy surroundings, commuting quarrelsome electricity and water shortages. These sources of stress are: [1]
(A) Life events
(B) Hassles
(C) Traumatic events
(D) Environmental events
Answer:
(B) Hassles
Explanation: Hassles are the personal stresses we endure as individuals, due to the happenings in our daily life, such as noisy surroundings, commuting, quarrelsome neighbours, electricity and water shortage, traffic snarls and so on.
Question 8.
Samina keeps organizing her cupboard the whole day. Even the thought of somebody messing it, keeps her distracted in class and makes her anxious. Such symptoms are typical of which disorder? [1]
(A) obsessive-compulsive disorder
(B) Depressive disorder
(C) anxiety disorder
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) obsessive-compulsive disorder
Explanation: OCD is characterized by obsessions and compulsions. This includes being preoccupied with certain thoughts (obsessions) that are viewed by the person to be embarrassing or shameful and being unable to check the impulse to repeatedly carry out certain acts (compulsions) like checking, washing, counting, etc. Here, Samina also has an obsession with organizing her cupboard and keeping it that way.
Question 9.
Extreme pain without any identifiable biological symptom is an example of __________disorder. [1]
(A) pain/ somatoform
(B) anxiety
(C) hypochondriac
(D) Fugues
Answer:
(A) pain/ somatoform
Explanation: Persistent body-related symptoms which may or may not be related to any serious medical condition. People with this disorder tend to be overly preoccupied with their symptoms and they continually worry about their health and make frequent visits to doctors.
As a result, they experience significant distress and disturbances in their daily life. It includes pain disorders, somatization disorders, conversion disorders, and hypochondriasis. People with Pain Disorders report extreme pain, either with or without any identifiable biological symptoms.
Question 10.
Which of tire following is a major diagnostic criterion of ADHD? [1]
(A) Inattention
(B) Hyperactivity
(C) Irritability
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(A) Inattention
Explanation: The full form of ADHD is Attention-deficit Hyperactivity Disorder. This includes inattention and hyperactivity. In this disorder, the child or the adult finds it difficult to concentrate on one thing and is hyperactive. They can be in constant motion too.
Question 11.
In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice. [1]
Assertion (A): Deficits in adaptive behaviour or the capacity to be independent and deal effectively with one’s environment.
Reason (R): Deficits must be observed during the developmental period, i.e., between 0-18 years.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Explanation: Both (A) and (R) are statements of facts about Deficits. They do not have any cause and-effect relationship.
Question 12.
Nishant feels very strongly that everyone should love him and he should be selected to represent the school in all competitions. When this does not happen, he feels miserable and is unable to concentrate. Which form of therapy would be the most suitable for him to overcome this problem? [1]
(A) Cognitive therapy
(B) Psychodynamic therapy
(C) Behaviour therapy
(D) Biomedical therapy
Answer:
(A) Cognitive therapy
Explanation: Cognitive behavioural therapy is a psycho-social intervention that aims to reduce symptoms of various mental health conditions, primarily depression and anxiety disorders.
Question 13.
__________refers to the repeated association of the desired response with a positive consequence. [1]
(A) Aversion
(B) Positive Reinforcement
(C) Punishment
(D) Flooding
Answer:
(B) Positive Reinforcement
Explanation: If an adaptive behaviour occurs rarely, positive reinforcement is given to increase the deficit. It is a repeated association of the desired response with the positive consequence of increasing its frequency.
Question 14.
In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice. [1]
Assertion (A): Problem-focused response includes taking direct action to solve the problem.
Reason (R): It pertains to seeking information that will be relevant to the solution.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Question 15.
A__________ is a cluster of ideas regarding the characteristics of a specific group. [1]
(A) Prejudice
(B) Discrimination
(C) Scapegoating
(D) Stereotype
Answer:
(D) Stereotype
Explanation: A stereotype is a widely held belief about a certain social group or a type of individual based on prior assumptions.
Question 16.
The Tendency of respondents to endorse items in a socially desirable manner is known as: [1]
(A) Acquiescence
(B) Self-report
(C) Social desirability
(D) Halo effect
Answer:
(C) Social desirability
Explanation: Social desirability refers to the tendency to respond to self-report items in a way that makes the respondent look good, rather than to respond in an accurate and truthful manner.
Question 17.
In 1957, Leon Festinger published his theory of ___________. [1]
(A) Balance
(B) Cognitive dissonance
(C) Attribution
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Cognitive dissonance
Explanation: The theory was proposed by Leon Festinger. It emphasizes that the cognitive components of an attitude must be consonant i.e., they should be logically in line with each other.
Question 18.
In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice. [1]
Assertion (A): Karen Homey argued that psychological disorders were caused by disturbed interpersonal relationships during childhood.
Reason (R): The goals that provide us with security and help us in overcoming feelings of inadequacy are important in our personality development.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Section- B (10 Marks)
Question 19.
Explain the physiological effects of stress. [2]
Answer:
Some of the physiological effects of stress include the following:
- Increase in the production of certain hormones: Adrenaline and cortisol.
- Changes in the heart rate
- Blood pressure levels
- Sleep disturbances
- Release of epinephrine and norepinephrine
- Slowing down the digestive system
- Expansion of air passage in the lungs
- Increased heart rate
- Constriction of blood vessels
Question 20.
Define stress and name its two levels. [2]
OR
Who gave GAS? Name the three stages of it.
Answer:
The pattern of responses an organism makes to a stimulus event that disturbs the equilibrium and exceeds a person’s ability to cope is called stress. The two types of stress are Eustress and Distress.
OR
General Adaptation Syndrome was given by Hans Selye. The three stages of GAS are:
(i) Alarm
(ii) Resistance
(iii) Exhaustion
Question 21.
Analyse the chief benefit to the client in both behavioral and humanistic therapies. [2]
Answer:
Behaviour therapies: The aim is to change faulty behavior and cognitions to adaptive ones. The principles of these techniques are to reduce the arousal level of the client, alter behaviour through classical conditioning or operant conditioning with different contingencies of reinforcements, as well as to use vicarious learning procedures, if necessary. It includes techniques like systematic desensitization, positive and negative conditioning, vicarious conditioning, flooding, etc.
Humanistic therapies: Humanistic-existential therapy encourages the client to seek personal growth i.e., increasing understanding of oneself and one’s aspirations, emotions and motives and actualizing the potential. It includes and is based on the theories given by Maslow and Roger.
Question 22.
Discuss how attitudes are learned through exposure to information. [2]
Answer:
In today’s world, an individual is exposed to a lot of information with the help of the media, so a negative or positive attitude is formed on the information provided. By reading the biographies of self-actualized persons, an individual may develop a positive attitude toward hard work and other aspects of achieving success in life.
Question 23.
What is Proximity? [2]
Answer:
Repeated interactions with the same set of individuals give us a chance to know them and their interests and attitudes. This is called Proximity.
Section – C (12 Marks)
Question 24.
Describe the Hierarchical model of Intelligence? [3]
Answer:
Level I: This level is associative learning in which the output is more or less similar to the input as in rote learning.
Level II: This is cognitive competence (sensitivity to contact, understanding discrimination, problem solving and effective communication). It involves higher-order skills as they transform the input to produce an effective output.
Question 25.
Explain the strategies to cope with stress. Give examples from daily life. [3]
Answer:
The three coping strategies given by Endler and Parker are:
(i) Task-oriented Strategy: This involves using alternate courses of action for coping. For example, scheduling your time better or using better methods to solve problems.
(ii) Emotion-oriented” Strategy: This involves venting feelings of anger and frustration or deciding that nothing can be done to change things. For example, to stop worrying.
(iii) Avoidance-oriented strategy: This involves denying or minimizing the seriousness of the situation. It involves the conscious suppression of stressful thoughts and their replacement by self-protective thoughts. Examples of this are watching TV, phone up a friend or trying to be with other people
Question 26.
You have been given the responsibility of changing the attitude of your schoolmates towards food waste. Identify and explain any three factors that you need to keep in mind while bringing in this attitude change. [3]
OR
Explain any three sources of prejudice.
Answer:
To change the attitude of my schoolmates toward food wastage. He following characteristics should be emphasized :
Source characteristics: Attitudes are more likely to change when the message comes from a highly credible source rather than from a low-credible source.
For E.g., a farmer knows the value of food more than others who spend their entire life producing food for us. So, he is the person a highly credible source.
Message characteristics: Attitudes will change when the amount of information that is given about the topic is just enough, neither too much nor too little. Whether the message contains a rational or an emotional appeal, also makes a difference.
The motives activated by the message depend on the mode of spreading the message (face-to-face transmission is more effective than indirect transmission). For E.g., one lesson given by him on food wastage might lead to a change in attitude.
Target characteristics: Qualities of the target, such as persuasibility (open and flexible personality), strong prejudices, self-esteem, and more willingness because they base their attitude on more information and thinking. For E.g., students must possess the willingness to change according to the information provided by The farmers.
OR
Some of the sources of prejudice are given below:
Scapegoating: This is a phenomenon by which the majority group places the blame on minority groups for its own social, economic or political problems. The minority is too weak or too small in number to defend itself against such accusations.
Kernel of Truth Concept: Sometimes people may continue to hold stereotypes because they think that there must be some truth, or ‘Kernel of truth’ in which everyone says about the other group.
Self-fulfilling Prophecy: The group that is the target of prejudice is itself responsible for continuing the prejudice by behaving in ways that justify the prejudice or confirm the negative expectation.
Question 27.
Describe any three elements of group structure. [3]
Answer:
The three important elements of group structure are Roles, Norms, and Status:
Roles: Roles are socially defined expectations that individuals in a given situation are expected to fulfil. Roles refer to the typical behaviour that depicts a person in a given social context.
In a role of a son or a daughter, there are certain role expectations. An example is, as a daughter or a son, you are expected to respect elders, listen to them, and be responsible for your studies.
Norms: Norms are expected standards of behaviour and beliefs established, agreed upon, and enforced by group members. They may be considered a group’s “unspoken rules.” In One’s family, Some norms guide the behaviour of family members. These norms represent shared ways of viewing the world.
Status: Relative social position given to group members by others.
Section – D (16 Marks)
Question 28.
Explain the competencies of the Indian notion of intelligence. [4]
OR
Define Intelligence and Emotional Intelligence. Determine the relationship between EQ and IQ.
Answer:
Competencies of Indian Notion of Intelligence:
(1) Cognitive competence (Capacity): Sensitivity to context, understanding, discrimination, effective communication and problem-solving.
(2) Social competence: Respect for social order, commitment to elders, the young and the needy, concern about others, and recognising others’ perspectives.
(3) Emotional competence: Self-regulation and self-monitoring of emotions, honesty, politeness, good conduct and self-evaluation.
(4) Entrepreneurial competence: Commitment, persistence, patience, hard work, vigilance and goal-directed behaviours.
OR
According to Wechsler, Intelligence is “the global and aggregate capacity of an individual to think rationally, act purposefully, and deal effectively with his/ her environment.” According to Salovey and Mayer, Emotional Intelligence is “the ability to monitor one’s own and other’s emotions, to discriminate among them and to use the information to guide one’s thinking and actions.”
Emotional quotient (EQ) involves the ability to perceive and manage one’s and other’s feelings and emotions to motivate oneself and restrain one’s impulses and handle interpersonal relationships effectively. It is used to express emotional intelligence in the same way as IQ is used to express intelligence. A person with high IQ doesn’t also have a high EQ and vice versa.
Question 29.
Explain personality development by Alfred Adler and Karen Horney. [4]
Answer:
Alfred Adler’s theory is known as individual psychology. The central human motive is that of striving for superiority. Human behaviour is purposeful and goal-directed. Each one can choose and create such goals. Our personal goals are sources of motivation for us.
Alfred Adler’s view – every individual suffers from “feelings of inferiority” that are experienced during infancy and childhood. During childhood, the child is helpless and depends on others for help and support.
Karen Horney advocated for a more optimistic view of human life with an emphasis on Human Growth and Self-actualisation. She emphasized the importance of social relationships in personality development.
According to her, psychological disorders were caused by disturbed interpersonal relationships during childhood. She gave the concept of Basic anxiety which refers to the feeling of a child being isolated and helpless in a potentially hostile world.
Question 30.
Describe the effect of stress on the immune system? [4]
Answer:
The release of stress hormones results in the weakening of our immune system thus affecting mental and physical health. A weakened immune system has a serious effect on individuals’ health.
Stress has physiological effects and can affect natural killer cell cytotoxicity, which is of major importance in the defence against various infections and cancer. Reduced levels of natural killer cell cytotoxicity have been found in people who are highly stressed, including students facing important examinations, bereaved persons and those who are severely depressed.
Psychological stress is accompanied by negative emotions or burnout situations and associated symptoms such as depression, anxiety, irritability and aggression. Individuals may have panic attacks or show obsessive behaviours, mood swings or phobias.
These individuals have feelings of hopelessness which is worsened by injury or disease. Emotions such as fear, anger or hostility are associated with anger outbursts, tantrums, withdrawal symptoms and feelings of hopelessness thus leading to the weakening of the immune system thus affecting mental and physical health. Studies reveal that immune functioning is better in individuals receiving social support.
Question 31.
Explain somatoform disorders. [4]
OR
What are dissociative disorders? Name the various types of dissociative disorders.
Answer:
In somatoform disorders, the individual has psychological difficulties and complains of physical symptoms, for which there is no biological cause i.e., the absence of physical disease. Somatoform disorders include:
Pain disorders: These involve reports of extreme and incapacitating pain, that are without any identifiable biological symptoms or greatly more than what might be expected to accompany biological symptoms.
Some people handle pain by remaining active and ignoring the pain. Others engage in passive coping, which leads to reduced activity and social withdrawal.
Somatisation disorders: Patients with somatization have multiple recurrent chronic bodily complaints. These complaints are likely to be presented in a dramatic and exaggerated way.
Common complaints are headaches, fatigue, heart palpitations, fainting spells, vomiting, and allergies. Patients with this disorder believe that they are sick, provide long and detailed histories of their illness, and take large quantities of medicine.
Conversion disorders: Patients with conversion disorder mainly report loss of part or all of some basic body functions. Paralysis, blindness, deafness and difficulty in walking are generally among the symptoms reported.
Hypochondriasis: Patients with hypochondriasis disorder have a persistent belief that she/he has a serious illness, despite medical reassurance, lack of physical findings, and failure to develop the disease.
Hypochondriacs have an obsessive preoccupation and concern with the condition of their bodily organs, and they continually worry about their health.
OR
Dissociation involves feelings of unreality, estrangement, depersonalization, and sometimes a loss or shift of identity. Sudden temporary alterations of consciousness that blot out painful experiences are a defining characteristic of dissociative disorders. There are four types of dissociative disorders:
(1) Dissociative amnesia is characterized by extensive but selective memory loss that has no known organic cause (e.g., head injury).
(2) Dissociative fugue has, as its essential feature, an unexpected journey away from home and the workplace, the assumption of a new identity, and the inability to recall the previous identity.
(3) Dissociative identity disorder is often referred to as multiple personalities, characterized by the idea that the person assumes alternate personalities that may or may not be aware of each other.
(4) Depersonalization involves a dreamlike state in which the person has a sense of being separated both from self and from reality. In depersonalization, there is a change in self perception, and the person’s sense of reality is temporarily lost or changed.
Section – E (6 Marks)
Question 32.
Discuss the observational methods used in personality assessment. What problems are faced in using these methods? [6]
OR
Explain the concept of personality. Describe the cultural approach to understand personality.
Answer:
The observational method is a very powerful tool for psychological inquiry. It is an effective method of describing behaviour. A scientific observation differs from day-to-day observation in many respects:
(i) Selection: Psychologists do not observe all the behaviour that they encounter. Rather, they select a particular behaviour for observation.
(ii) Recording: While observing, a researcher records the selected behaviour using different means, such as marking tallies for the already identified behaviour whenever they occur, taking notes describing each activity in greater detail using shorthand or symbols, photographs, video recording, etc.
(iii) After the observations have been made, psychologists analyse whatever they have recorded to derive some meaning out of it.
(iv) Observation is a skill. Good observation is a skill. A good observer knows what he/she is looking for, whom he/she wants to observe, and when and where the observation needs to be made.
Observation can be of the following types: Non Participant vs Participant Observation:
1. non-participant observation:
(i) To observe the person or event from a distance.
(ii) The observer may become part of the group being observed.
(iii) In the first case, the person being observed may not be aware that he/she is being observed. For example, you want to observe the pattern of interaction between teachers and students in a particular class.
2. Participant observation:
(i) In participant observation, the observer becomes a part of the school or the group of people being observed.
(ii) The observer takes some time to establish a rapport with the group so that they start accepting him/her as one of the group members.
(iii) The degree of involvement of the observer with the group being observed would vary depending upon the focus of the study. The advantage of the observation method is that it enables the researcher to study people and their behaviour in a naturalistic situation, as it occurs.
However, the observation method is labour-intensive, time-consuming, and susceptible to the observer’s bias. Our observation is influenced by our values and beliefs about the person or the event. despite the widespread use of this method, it has the following limitations:
(i) Professional training is required for the collection of useful data and is quite demanding and time-consuming.
(ii) The maturity of the observer is a precondition. Else personal biases can alter the assessment.
(iii) The mere presence of the observer may contaminate the results.
(iv) Daily routine life events are ignored or unnoticed in the process of observations.
OR
Personality refers to individual differences in characteristics and patterns of thinking. It is derived from ‘persona’ (Latin), the mask used by actors in Roman theatre for changing their facial makeup. Once we can characterise characterize personality, we can predict how that person will probably behave in a variety of circumstances. An understanding of personality allows us to deal with people in realistic and acceptable ways.
Features of Personality:
1. The two components of personality are physical and psychological.
2. Its expression in terms of behaviour is fairly unique in a given individual.
3. The features of personality don’t change over time completely.
4. Internal or external situational demands; adaptive to situational demand might change features of personality to a certain extent.
The cultural approach to understanding personality follows the features and characteristics given below:
Considers personality as an adaptation of individuals or groups to the demand of their ecology and culture. A group’s economic maintenance system plays a vital role in the origin of cultural and behavioural variations.
The climatic conditions, the nature of the terrain of the habitat and the availability of food determine people’s settlement patterns, social structures, division of labor, and other features such as child-rearing practices.
Economic maintenance system. These elements constitute a child’s overall learning behavioural styles, and value priorities are viewed as strongly linked to these features. environment skills, abilities.
Section – F (8 Marks)
Read the case and answer the questions that follow.
The symptoms of schizophrenia can be grouped into three categories, viz. Positive symptoms (i.e., excesses of thought, emotion, and behaviour), negative symptoms (i.e., deficits of thought, emotion, and behaviour), and psychomotor symptoms. Positive symptoms are ‘pathological excesses’ or ‘bizarre additions’ to a person’s behaviour. Delusions, disorganized thinking and speech, heightened perception and hallucinations, and inappropriate effects are the ones most often found in schizophrenia. Many people with schizophrenia develop delusions. A delusion is a false belief that is firmly held on inadequate grounds. It is not affected by rational argument and has no basis in reality.
Question 33.
Define schizophrenia and segregate its positive and negative symptoms. [2]
Answer:
Schizophrenia is the descriptive term for a group of psychotic disorders in which personal, social and occupational functioning deteriorates as a result of disturbed thought processes, strange perceptions, unusual emotional states and motor abnormalities.
Positive symptoms are ‘pathological excesses’ or ‘bizarre additions’ to a person’s behaviour. These include hallucinations, delusions, etc. Negative symptoms are ‘pathological deficits’ in the person’s behavior. These include poverty of speech (alogia), blunted or flat affect, loss of volition, and social withdrawal.
Question 34.
Define hallucinations and delusions. [2]
Answer:
Hallucinations are perceptions felt by an individual that are not present in the environment. A delusion is a false belief that is firmly held on inadequate grounds. It is not affected by rational argument and has no basis in reality.
Read the case and answer the questions that follow.
Geeta and Seeta are identical twins born into a family of wealth. After their birth, their parents died in a car accident. They did not have many relatives to take care of them and so they were sent to separate foster homes. Geeta went to a house that had all the facilities and started living a luxurious life. Seeta, on the other hand, was taken in by a lower middle-class family.
While growing up she did not have as many facilities as Geeta as her parents were barely meeting ends. She had to drop her education in high school and Geeta’s job in order to help her family. Due to this kind of financial situation, her parents also used to fight a lot and even argue with her at times. Both of them had a similar genetic makeup but their environment was different.
It was seen that ultimately Geeta became a doctor whereas Seeta was always struggling and staying between jobs. It was also observed that at the age of 18 Geeta had a higher IQ than Seeta.
Question 35.
Define Intelligence and IQ along with its formula. [2]
Answer:
According to Wechsler, Intelligence is “the global and aggregate capacity of an individual to think rationally, act purposefully, and deal effectively with his/ her environment.” The intelligence Quotient is a scale to measure intelligence and it can be defined as mental age divided by chronological age multiplied by 100.
I.Q. = MA/CA x 1OO
Question 36.
Why is Geeta’s IQ higher than Seeta’s? Explain the role of nature and nurture in Intelligence. [2]
Answer:
Geeta and Seeta were identical twins but still, Geeta’s IQ ended up being high because she got an environment that supported and advanced her intelligence. Intelligence is a product of the complex interaction of heredity (nature) and environment (nurture).
Heredity can best be viewed as something that sets a range within which an individual’s development is shaped by the support and opportunities of the environment. So, even if you have inherited high intelligence, your environment can affect this negatively and result in a low IQ.