CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 2 with Solutions

Students must start practising the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 2 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80

General Instructions:

Question paper comprises Six Sections -A, B, C, D, E, and F. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
Section C – contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words
Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer-type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each.
Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
(Multiple Choice Questions) (1 × 20 = 20)

Question 1.
Choose the incorrect option from the following statements regarding the Act of Union 1707.
(a) It was an agreement between England and Scotland.
(b) It was an agreement between England and Ireland.
(c) It gave power to England to control over Scotland.
(d) It resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.
Answer:
(b) It was an agreement between England and Ireland.

Question 2.
What did Mahatma Gandhi declare in his book, ‘Hind Swaraj’?
(a) British ruled India because the latter was militarily weak.
(b) British ruled India because Indians cooperated with them.
(c) British ruled India because they got international support.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) British ruled India because Indians cooperated with them.

Question 3.
Look at the picture given below. Identify the person who is portrayed in this picture from the following

options:
(a) Martin Luther
(b) Johann Gutenberg
(c) Desiderius Erasmus
(d) Thomas Wood
Answer:
(b) Johann Gutenberg

Question 4.
Arrange the following in chronological order:
I. During the American Civil War, raw cotton exports from India to Britain increased.
II. A Company official named Henry Patullo, once dared to say that the demand for Indian textiles could never reduce because no other country produced goods of the same quality.
III. Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata set up the first iron and steel works in India at Jamshedpur.
IV. James Hargreaves invented the Spinning Jenny to speed up the spinning process and reduce labour demand.
Options:
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) IV, I, II, III
(c) III, IV, II, I
(d) IV, II, I, III
Answer:
(d) IV, II, I, III

Question 5.
Identify the crop with the help of the following information:

It is the staple food crop of a majority of the people in India.
It is a Kharif crop which requires high temperature and high humidity.
In the areas of less rainfall, it grows with the help of irrigation.
It is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence crop.

Options:
(a) Wheat
(b) Maize
(c) Rice
(d) Bajra
Answer:
(c) Rice

Question 6.
In which one of the following states is terrace cultivation practised?
(a) Punjab
(c) Havana
(b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer:
(d) Uttarakhand

Question 7.
Match the following:

Resources	Examples
A. Individual Resources	I. Fossil fuels
B. Biotic Resources	II. Houses
C. Community-Owned Resources	III. Flora and fauna
D. Non-Renewable Resources	IV. Burial grounds

Options:
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(b) A-III. B-I, C-IV, D-II
(c) A-I, B-IV, C-Il, D-III
(d) A-II, B-III. C-IV, D-I
Answer:
(d) A-II, B-iII, C-IV, D-I

Question 8.
Consider the following statements regarding language policy of India and identify the correct one from
the following:
(a) Hindi is the national language.
(b) English is the official language.
(c) No language is given the status of national language.
(d) English is the national language.
Answer:
(c) No language is given the status of national language.

Question 9.
Which of the following is a reason for the government to impose barriers on trade?
(a) To regulate the type and amount of goods that can enter the country.
(b) To increase competition in domestic market.
(c) To remove monopoly markets from the country.
(d) To improve the performance of domestic producers.
Answer:
(a) To regulate the type and amount of goods that can enter the country.

Question 10.
Identify the political party that emerged out of a mass movement.
(a) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
(b) Indian National Congress
(c) Forward Bloc
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party
Answer:
(a) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam

Question 11.
Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched?

List-I	List-II
(a) Cotton Industry	Agro based industry
(b) Paper Industry	Heavy industry
(c) Cement Industry	Light industry
(d) Sugar Industry	Mineral based industry

Question 12.
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): India is a federal state.
Reason (R): Power is shared among different tiers of the government.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 13.
What does Universal Adult Suffrage stand for?
(a) Right to vote
(b) Right to choose
(c) Right to work
(d) Right to speech
Answer:
(a) Right to vote

Question 14.
Read the given data and find out which one of the following options has the highest contribution in loan activities in rural India.

Source of Credit per Rs 1000 of Rural Households in India in 2012
Category	Category
Commercial Banks	25%
Cooperative Banks	25%
Moneylenders	33%
Government	1

(a) Commercial Banks
(b) Cooperative Banks
(c) Moneylenders
(d) Government
Answer:
(c) Moneylenders

Question 15.
Identify the political party with the help of the following features:

Formed in 1999 following a split in the Congress Party.
A major party in Maharashtra.
A member of the United Progressive Alliance (UPA) since 2004.
Won 1.4% votes and 5 seats in the 2019 Lok Sabha elections.

Options:
(a) Shiv Sena
(b) Maharashtra Navnirman Sena
(c) Janata Dal (Secular)
(d) Nationalist Congress Party
Answer:
(d) Nationalist Congress Party

Question 16.
Find the odd one out from the following:
(a) Mahindra & Mahindra, Ford Motors, Volkswagen, Tata Motors
(b) Parakh Foods, Cargil Foods, Coca-Cola, Adani Wilmar
(c) Nokia, Samsung, Apple, Motorola
(d) Ranbaxy, Cipla, Novartis, Pfizer
Answer:
(b) Parakh Foods, Cargill Foods, Coca-Cola, Adani Wilmar

Question 17.
Fill in the blank:

Sector	Example
Public	All India Radio
Private	?

Options:
(a) Railways
(b) TISCO
(c) Post Office
(d) SAIL
Answer:
(b) TISCO

Question 18.
Read the information given below and select the correct option.
Ravi lives in Gurugram. When he was in school, there were very few call centres in Gurugram. Now he finds hundreds of call centres and BPOs in the city. Which one of the following is the most appropriate reason for this growth?
(a) High FDI
(b) High average income
(c) Developed network of transportation
(d) High tariffs
Answer:
(a) High FDI

Question 19.
Which one of the following subjects is included in the State List?
(a) Defence
(b) Marriage
(c) Agriculture
(d) Currency
Answer:
(c) Agriculture

Question 20.
Identify the correct statement/s about Special Economic Zones (SEZs):
I. SEZs have been set up to attract foreign companies to invest in India.
II. They have world-class facilities like electricity, water, roads, transport, storage, recreational and educational facilities.
III. Companies which set up production units in the SEZs do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of seven years.
IV. The Parliament passed the Special Economic Zones Act in 2005 after many consultations and deliberations.
Options:
(a) I & II
(b) I & III
(c) III & IV
(d) I, II & IV
Answer:
(d) I, II & IV

Section – B
(Very Short Answer-Based Questions)

Question 21.
Explain the aim to form ‘Zollverein’ in 1834 in Germany.
Answer:
Zollverein was a customs union formed in 1834 at the initiative of Prussia.

The union abolished tariff barriers and internal custom dues and was willing to establish free trade with neighbouring states.
It reduced the number of currencies from thirty to two.

Question 22.
What are the two major means of communication?
Answer:
The two major means of communication are:

Personal communication, which includes letter, e-mail, telephone, etc.
Mass communication, which includes television, radio, press, films, etc.

Question 23.
Why collateral is important in a credit arrangement?
OR
Write a short note on the ‘terms of credit.’
Answer:
Collateral has become a formal part of the credit market in India and it has many benefits:

It protects the money of the financial institutions.
It puts the borrower under the obligation of repaying his loan promptly.

Terms of credit refer to the terms and conditions stated by the lender to the borrower while giving out a loan.
They include collateral, interest rate, mode of repayment and documentation requirement.

Question 24.
Mention any two major differences between policies of CPI and CPI-M.
Answer:

Policies of CPI	Policies of CPI (M)
(i) It considers democratic elections as a valuable and influential tool for ensuring the objective of socio-economic justice in India.	It considers parliamentary democracy as a tool for promoting the interests of the poor, the working class and farmers.
(ii) It is critical of the new economic policies that allow free flow of foreign money and goods into the country.	It is against secessionism and communalism.

Section – C
(Short Answer-Based Questions)

Question 25.
“Tribal peasants interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi and the idea of swaraj in another way and participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement differently.” Justify the statement.
OR
Why Congress became unhappy with the proceedings of the Awadh Peasant Movement?
Answer:
The tribal people had developed their interpretation of the meaning of swaraj and reacted differently during the, non-cooperation movement:

There was the initiation of a militant guerilla movement in the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh.
They became resistive towards the colonial laws and policies and tried to break those laws on several occasions.
A large number of peasants left plantations and defied the authority of the British government. They also resorted to violence on many occasions.

OR
There were several reasons due to which the Congress became unhappy with the proceedings of the Awadh Peasant Movement.

The movement became violent and the houses of Talukdars and merchants were attacked and bazaars were looted.
Peasants were told that Gandhiji has told not to pay taxes to the landlords which was not true in reality. The name of Gandhiji was widely used to spread rumours.
The movement did not adopt the non-violent approach which was deemed by Congress and Mahatma Gandhi for the freedom struggle.

Question 26.
“Multi-purpose projects have failed to achieve the purpose for which they were built”. Justify by giving reasons.
Answer:

These dams were constructed to control floods but they have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir.
Moreover, the big dams have mostly been unsuccessful in controlling floods at the time of excessive rainfall.
Many time, authorities are forced to release water from dams during heavy rainfall.

Question 27.
Examine the role of political parties in a democratic country.
Answer:
There are several roles of political parties in a democracy. Some of them are:

Political parties run the administration of the country after forming the government through elections.
They are an important medium for shaping the opinion of the public and making decisions according to the will of the public.
They are in regular touch with the people and also work as an opposition on several occasions against the ruling party.

Question 28.
Why do most of the rural households still remain dependent on the informal sources of credit? Explain.
Answer:
There are several reasons due to which the rural people are still dependent on the informal sources of
credit:

The availability of banks in the rural areas is very less due to which people are unable to acquire credit from them.
The documentation procedures of the banks are too lengthy and on several occasions, rural people are unable to fulfil the formalities of documents due to which they do not receive loans.
One of the most prominent reasons is the absence of collateral and the easiness of securing loans from rich landlords.

Question 29.
Describe any three characteristics of the ‘Odisha-Jharkhand belt’ of iron ore in India.
Answer:
The Odisha-Jharkhand Belt has the following characteristics:

This belt contains high-grade hematite ore that is exported via Paradweep port.
In Odisha, hematite ore is found in the Badampahar mines, which are located in Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar districts.
It is also found in the Gua and Noamundi mines, which are located in the Singbhum district of Jharkhand.

Section – D
(Long Answer-Based Questions)

Question 30.
Why did the Roman Catholic Church begin keeping an Index of Prohibited Books from the mid-sixteenth century? Explain by giving five reasons.
OR
Explain how print culture assisted the growth of nationalism in India.
Answer:
The Roman Catholic Church kept an Index of Prohibited Books from the mid-sixteenth century. The reasons are as follows:

It was felt that if there was no control over the printed materials, then rebellion and irrational thoughts might permeate.
Many monarchs thought that if there is no control, then printed books could lead to rebels against the state authorities.
Many religious prerogatives feared that printed materials could make the people rebel against their religious beliefs and faith.
The Roman Catholic Church wielded control over publishers and book retailers. The Church began to maintain an Index of Prohibited Books.
In the same way, many writers and artists felt that if nobody exercised control on the printed material, then the prerogatives of the precious publications would have perished.

OR
Print culture culminated in the development of nationalism in India. The points are as follows:
(i) Print culture resulted in publication of most newspapers in vernacular languages. Many journals were published after 1870.

(ii) These journals and newspapers published cartoons and caricatures refuting the imperial rule and gave comments on social and political issues. The vernacular newspapers such as Kesari and Maratha in Marathi languages were overtly nationalist and reflected on colonial misrule and stimulated nationalist current.

(iii) The British government advocated repressive policies that led to militant protest. Tilak was incarcerated for reporting on repressive measures in his Kesari in 1908. It resulted in widespread resentment.

(iv) Print culture encouraged the leaders to pass on the ideas to people across the nation. This initiative brought them closer and assisted in the development of nationalism.

Question 31.
What geographical conditions are required for the cultivation of sugarcane? Name the two largest producing states of sugarcane.
OR
Name the most important beverage crop of India. Describe the suitable climatic conditions required for its growth. Also mention the major states producing that crop.
Answer:
(i) Temperature: Sugarcane needs hot and humid climate with temperatures ranging between 21°C to 27°C. Very high temperature is harmful for its growth, while low temperature slows its growth. It cannot withstand frost. A cool temperature is needed at the time of ripening.

(ii) Rainfall: It grows best in areas receiving 75 cm to 100 cm of rainfall. Too heavy rainfall results in low sugar content.

(iii) Soil: Sugarcane grows on well-drained fertile soil. It can grow on a variety of soils including black, alluvial, loamy and reddish loam. But the best soil is the alluvial soil of the Ganga plain and the black soil of southern India. Sugarcane exhausts the fertility of the soil. Hence, the use of manure is essential to ensure high yields.

(iv) Areas of production: Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of sugarcane. The other states in the Ganga plain are Bihar, Punjab and Haryana.

OR
Tea is the most important beverage crop of India.
Climatic conditions:
(i) Temperature: The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climate. Tea bushes require warm and moist, frost-free climate all through the year. Tea bushes require a temperature of more than 25°C.

(ii) Rainfall: The tea plant needs heavy rainfall ranging between 150 cm to 250 cm. The rainfall should be well distributed throughout the year.

(iv) Soil: The plant requires a light loamy soil. The soil should be rich in humus and iron content. Tea is a soil-exhausting crop, so frequent use of chemical fertilisers and manure is essential. Producers: Major tea-producing states are Assam, West Bengal, (Hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri Districts), Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also major tea-producing states in the country.

Question 32.
Democracy’s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot be ignored.’ Support the statement with examples.
OR
‘There is overwhelming support for the idea of democracy in South Asia.’ Support the statement with examples.
Answer:
There are several reasons due to which democracy has wide support from society:

The decision-making in democracy is based on rigorous deliberations and debates which ensure the quality of decision-making.
People have been given the right to choose their political representatives through the medium of Universal Adult Franchise, which gives voting rights to the people above 18 years of age.
A democratic government is an accountable government and people have the right to know about the functioning of the government.
The interests of the majorities as well as the minorities are secured in a democratic government.
A democratic government is a form of government for the people, of the people and by the people.

OR
Most of the South Asian nations have adopted the democratic form of government and there is strong support for such government due to the following reasons:

Democratic government is chosen by the people by exercising their right to vote.
A democratic government is generally accountable for its working to the people.
A democratic government ensures dignity and equality among the individuals of the country.
It also accommodates social, cultural and religious diversity in the country.
The democratic government gives rise to the process of debates and deliberations in the country.

Question 33.
Examine the role of Information Technology in stimulating the process of globalisation.
OR
Assess the impact of globalisation on India and its people.
Answer:
The development of Information Technology has contributed positively to the process of globalisation in the following ways:

The advancements in the modes of communication such as the development of telegraphs, mobile phones and fax have made it easy to access information in any corner of the world.
The introduction of the internet has been significant in making the world a smaller place. Any sort of information can be accessed using the internet from any place in the world.
The development of computers has changed the dynamics of the working of the companies. Nearly all companies have installed computers to automate their processes.
The development of satellite communication devices has been very positive for the spread of globalisation.
E-Mail and Voice mail have become prominent tools for communication among people at different places.

OR
The impact of globalisation is varying for different sections of people in India:

Globalisation has led to an increase in the choices for the consumers. Now, they have access to a variety of foreign as well as local products.
Multi-National Companies (MNCs) have established their offices in India which has led to an increase in employment opportunities for people.
Some of the local companies supplying raw material to the MNCs have been benefitted due to globalisation.
The government of India has brought flexibility in the labour laws and the laws for the unorganised sector.
Globalisation has led to a significant increase in the competition among the different producers of goods and services.

Section – E
(Case-Based Questions)

Question 34.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
In Africa, in the 1890s, a fast-spreading disease of cattle plague or rinderpest had a terrifying impact on people’s livelihoods and the local economy. This is a good example of the widespread European imperial impact on colonised societies. It shows how in this era of conquest even a disease affecting cattle, reshaped the lives and fortunes of thousands of people and their relations with the rest of the world.

Historically, Africa had abundant land and a relatively small population. For centuries, land and livestock sustained African livelihoods and people rarely worked for a wage. In late nineteenth-century Africa, there were few consumer goods that wages could buy. If you had been an African possessing land and livestock – and there was plenty of both – you too would have seen little reason to work for a wage.

1. What was Rinderpest?
Answer:
Rinderpest was a fast-spreading disease of cattle plague which led to the death of millions of cattle in African continent during the 1890s.

2. What were the two main sources of African economy for past centuries?
Answer:
From several centuries, the African economy was primarily dependent on land and livestock. The African people were rarely seen working for the wages.

3. How cattle plague affected the situation of people in Africa?
Answer:
The cattle plague proved to be disastrous for the African people as it led to the death of millions of livestock which were the source of livelihood for them. This resulted in the turning of the African people into labourers by the colonisers who gave meagre wages to the people for large amount of manual work.

Question 35.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
The Government in India buys wheat and rice from farmers at a ‘fair price’. This it stores in its godowns and sells at a lower price to consumers through ration shops. The government has to bear some of the cost. In this way, the government supports both farmers and consumers. There are a large number of activities which are the primary responsibility of the government. The government must spend on these.

Providing health and education facilities for all is one example. Running proper schools and providing quality education, particularly elementary education, is the duty of the government. India’s size of illiterate population is one of the largest in the world. Similarly, we know that nearly half of India’s children are malnourished and a quarter of them are critically ill.

The infant mortality rate of Odisha (40) or Madhya Pradesh (48) is higher than some of the poorest regions of the world. The government also needs to pay attention to aspects of human development such as availability of safe drinking water, housing facilities for the poor and food and nutrition. It is also the duty of the government to take care of the poorest and most ignored regions of the country through increased spending in such areas.

1. Why is there a need of public sector in an economy?
Answer:
There are several things needed by society as a whole but the private sector will not provide at a reasonable cost. The private sector may not continue their production or business unless government encourages it.

2. Give some examples of public sector.
Answer:
Providing health and education facilities for all is one example. Running proper schools and providing quality education, particularly elementary education, is the duty of the government.

3. Differentiate between the private and public sectors.
Answer:

Private Sector	Public Sector
(i) Private sector organisations are owned, controlled and managed by individual groups or business entities.	Public sector organisations are owned, controlled and managed by the government or other state-run bodies.
(ii) The main motive of these organisations is to earn profits from their business operations.	The main motive of these organisations is to engage in activities that serve the general public.

Question 36.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. Usually, a federation has two levels of government. One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of common national interest. The others are governments at the level of provinces or states that look after much of the day-to-day administering of their state. Both these levels of government enjoy their power independently of the other.

1. How is a unitary form of government different from a federal form of government?
Answer:
In the unitary form of government, there will be either one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central government, whereas in a federal structure, the power is divided between a central authority and other sub-units. The sub-units are not answerable to the central government.

2. Mention any one aspect of Federalism.
Answer:

Governments at different levels should agree to some rules of power-sharing.
They should also trust that each would abide by its part of the agreement. (Anyone)

3. Differentiate between coming together and holding together federations.
Answer:

Coming together federations	Holding together federations
(i) Independent states come together on their own to form a bigger unit.	A large country divides its power between the central government and its sub-units.
(ii) All states usually have equal power and are strong with regard to federal/central government.	The central government tends to be more powerful with regard to the states.
(iii) Examples- The USA, Switzerland, Australia.	Examples- are India, Spain, and Belgium.

(Any two)

Section – F
(MAP Skill-Based Questions)

Question 37.
(a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct name on the lines drawn near them:
(A) The place where the Non-Cooperation Movement was called off due to violence.
(B) The place where the Peasant Satyagraha was started.
(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following:

Mumbai Software Technology Park
Paradip Port
Ramagundam Thermal Power Plant
Identify the oil field

Answer: